The topic of Agarose Gel Electrophoresis MCQs NEET introduces aspirants to the principle that DNA molecules are negatively charged because of phosphate groups. When an electric field is applied, DNA migrates towards the positively charged electrode. Agarose gel acts like a molecular sieve that separates DNA fragments based on their length. Smaller fragments move faster while larger fragments move slowly through the gel matrix. This concept appears repeatedly in Agarose Gel Electrophoresis MCQs NEET because it forms the foundation of many biotechnology-based questions asked in examinations.

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30 Agarose Gel Electrophoresis MCQs NEET :

1. Which statements are true for agarose-gel electrophoresis?
A. Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from seaweed
B. Separation of DNA molecules depends on DNA size
C. DNA migrates from negatively charged electrode to positively charged electrode
D. DNA migrates from positively charged electrode

Options:
A. (A) and (B) only
B. (A), (B) and (C) only
C. (A), (B) and (D) only
D. (B), (C) and (D) only

Answer: B. (A), (B) and (C) only

Explanation: Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to size, and DNA migrates toward the positive electrode.

2. Which of the following statements are correct?
A. Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
B. Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
C. Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
D. Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
E. A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp DNA helix

Options:
A. (A), (C), (E) only
B. (B), (D), (E) only
C. (A), (C), (D) only
D. (B), (E) only

Answer: C. (A), (C), (D) only

Explanation: Euchromatin is loosely packed, histones are rich in lysine and arginine, and DNA wraps around histone octamers.

3. Which statement is correct?
A. Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
B. Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
C. Adenine does not pair with thymine
D. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds

Answer: D. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds

Explanation: Adenine and thymine are connected by two hydrogen bonds.

4. If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and total base pairs are 6.6 × 10⁹ bp, then DNA length is approximately
A. 2.5 meters
B. 2.2 meters
C. 2.7 meters
D. 2.0 meters

Answer: B. 2.2 meters

Explanation: DNA length = 6.6 × 10⁹ × 0.34 × 10⁻⁹ m = 2.2 m.

5. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
A. (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
B. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
C. (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
D. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

Answer: D. (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein

Explanation: Central dogma explains DNA replication, transcription into RNA, and translation into protein.

6. Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?
A. Jacob and Monod
B. Beadle and Tatum
C. Meselson and Stahl
D. Hershey and Chase

Answer: D. Hershey and Chase

Explanation: Hershey and Chase proved DNA is the genetic material using bacteriophages.

7. The association of histone H1 with nucleosome indicates
A. Transcription is occurring
B. DNA replication is occurring
C. DNA is condensed into chromatin
D. DNA double helix is exposed

Answer: C. DNA is condensed into chromatin

Explanation: Histone H1 helps in higher-order chromatin packing.

8. Chromosomes in bacterial cells are
A. Always circular
B. Always linear
C. Either circular or linear but never both
D. Circular as well as linear within same cell

Answer: A. Always circular

Explanation: Bacterial chromosomes are generally circular DNA molecules.

9. In a 3.2 kbp DNA piece, 820 adenine bases are present. Number of cytosine bases is
A. 780
B. 1560
C. 740
D. 1480

Answer: A. 780

Explanation: According to Chargaff’s rule, A=T and G=C.

10. Satellite of chromosome is
A. Rich in RNA and deficient in DNA
B. Rich in DNA and deficient in RNA
C. Rich in protein
D. Lacks DNA

Answer: A. Rich in RNA and deficient in DNA

Explanation: Satellite regions contain repetitive non-coding sequences.

11. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Fructose is a reducing sugar
B. Cellulose has β-D glucose units
C. DNA has D-ribose
D. Amylopectin is insoluble in water

Answer: C. DNA has D-ribose

Explanation: DNA contains deoxyribose sugar.

12. Which statement is wrong about satellite DNA?
A. Shows high polymorphism
B. Does not take part in protein synthesis
C. Does not inherit from parents to offspring
D. None

Answer: C. Does not inherit from parents to offspring

Explanation: Satellite DNA is inherited genetically.

13. A nucleosome contains
A. Both DNA and histones
B. Only histones
C. Both DNA and RNA
D. Only DNA

Answer: A. Both DNA and histones

Explanation: DNA wraps around histone proteins to form nucleosomes.

14. DNA probes tagged with radioactive isotopes help detect DNA by autoradiography. Choose correct option.
A. Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1
B. Both statements correct but no explanation
C. Statement 1 correct and statement 2 incorrect
D. Both incorrect

Answer: A. Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1

Explanation: Radioactive probes hybridize with complementary DNA sequences.

15. Match the following:
a. Pitch of helix
b. Number of bp per turn
c. Distance between two successive bp
d. Nature of helix

Options:
A. (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii), (d-iv)
B. (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iii), (d-iv)
C. (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iv), (d-iii)
D. (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iv), (d-iii)

Answer: B. (a-ii), (b-i), (c-iii), (d-iv)

Explanation: B-DNA has 10 bp per turn and pitch of 3.4 nm.

16.

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.

Options:
A. 1 – B, 2 – E, 3 – A, 4 – C
B. 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A
C. 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – A
D. 1 – A, 2 – E, 3 – D, 4 – B

Answer: C. 1 – B, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – A

Explanation:
Taylor and colleagues demonstrated semiconservative replication of DNA. Hershey and Chase proved DNA is the genetic material. Griffith discovered the transforming principle, while Jacob and Monod proposed the lac operon model.

17. DNA is mainly found in
A. Nucleus only
B. Cytoplasm only
C. Nucleus and cytoplasm
D. Nucleolus

Answer: A. Nucleus only

Explanation: Most cellular DNA is located inside the nucleus.

18. Which statement about DNA is incorrect?
A. DNA denatures at high temperature
B. DNA absorbs UV at 260 nm
C. DNA directly participates in protein synthesis
D. Pyrimidines are cytosine and thymine

Answer: C. DNA directly participates in protein synthesis

Explanation: DNA transfers information through RNA.

19. Most mutations are
A. Harmful
B. Harmful and recessive
C. Beneficial
D. Dominant

Answer: B. Harmful and recessive

Explanation: Most mutations negatively affect organisms and remain recessive.

20. If DNA strand sequence is ATCTG, complementary RNA strand is
A. AACTG
B. ATCGU
C. TTAGU
D. UAGAC

Answer: D. UAGAC

Explanation: RNA pairs A-U and C-G with DNA bases.

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21. Segments of DNA which move in genome are
A. Transposons
B. Introns
C. Exons
D. Cistrons

Answer: A. Transposons

Explanation: Transposons are mobile genetic elements.

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22.

The introduction of nematode-specific genes into host using Agrobacterium vectors causes the following action.

I. Production of both sense and antisense RNA in host cells
II. Formation of double-stranded RNA
III. Silencing of specific mRNA of nematode
IV. Prevention of infestation by nematodes

Options:
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV
D. I, III, IV

Answer: C. I, II, IV

Explanation:
Introduction of nematode-specific genes through Agrobacterium vectors produces both sense and antisense RNA, leading to dsRNA formation and RNA interference, thereby preventing nematode infestation.

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23. Which is an incorrect combination?
A. RNA polymerase I – rRNA
B. RNA polymerase II – hnRNA
C. RNA polymerase III – mRNA
D. DNA polymerase – DNA

Answer: C. RNA polymerase III – mRNA

Explanation: RNA polymerase III synthesizes tRNA.

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24.

Match the following lists correctly:

List-I	List-II	List-III
A. HIV	i. Shelter	I. Auxospore
B. Mycobiont	ii. TMV	II. RNA
C. Deuteromycetes	iii. Pennales	III. Trichoderma
D. Cell wall with silica	iv. Conidia	IV. Mineral absorption

Options:
A. ii II i IV iv III iii I
B. ii III i IV iii II iv I
C. ii II iv III i IV iii I
D. ii I iii II iv III i IV

Answer: A. ii II i IV iv III iii I

Explanation:
HIV contains RNA like TMV. Mycobiont provides shelter and helps mineral absorption. Deuteromycetes reproduce by conidia and include Trichoderma. Diatoms with silica walls belong to Pennales and form auxospores.

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25. Match molecules with functions.
A. Starch
B. Haemoglobin
C. RNA
D. Steroid

Functions:
p. Protein synthesis
q. Sex hormone
r. Storage product
s. Transport of gases

Options:
A. A=r; B=p; C=s; D=q
B. A=r; B=s; C=p; D=q
C. A=s; B=r; C=p; D=q
D. A=r; B=s; C=q; D=p

Answer: B. A=r; B=s; C=p; D=q

Explanation: Starch stores food; haemoglobin transports gases.

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26. Spliceosomes are absent in
A. Plants
B. Fungi
C. Animals
D. Bacteria

Answer: D. Bacteria

Explanation: Bacteria lack spliceosomes because they lack introns in mRNA.

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27. RNA is not found in
A. Chromosome
B. Plasmalemma
C. Nucleolus
D. Ribosome

Answer: B. Plasmalemma

Explanation: RNA is absent in the plasma membrane.

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28. Purines in RNA are
A. Adenine and Guanine
B. Thymine and Cytosine
C. Thymine and Uracil
D. Uracil and Cytosine

Answer: A. Adenine and Guanine

Explanation: RNA contains adenine and guanine as purines.

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29. Against codon 5′-UAC-3′, anticodon on tRNA is
A. 5′-AUG-3′
B. 5′-ATG-3′
C. 5′-GTA-3′
D. 5′-GUA-3′

Answer: D. 5′-GUA-3′

Explanation: Anticodon pairs complementarily with codon.

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30. Which form of RNA resembles a clover leaf?
A. hn-RNA
B. m-RNA
C. t-RNA
D. r-RNA

Answer: C. t-RNA

Explanation: Transfer RNA has a cloverleaf secondary structure.

Finally, Agarose Gel Electrophoresis MCQs NEET remains one of the most reliable preparation tools for mastering biotechnology concepts in Class 12 Biology. It combines theory, practical application, and analytical interpretation into a single topic that strengthens overall biology preparation. Aspirants who dedicate regular revision time to Agarose Gel Electrophoresis MCQs NEET often develop stronger confidence in molecular biology sections. With proper understanding and continuous practice, Agarose Gel Electrophoresis MCQs NEET can significantly improve conceptual accuracy, examination performance, and long-term retention of biotechnology concepts.